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Thermodynamics - Mechanical Engineering MCQ Question and Answers

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas

(a) pressure

(b) temperature

(d) all of the above

(e) atomic mass.

Ans: d

2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas

(a) Boyle's law

(b) Charles'law

(d) all of the above

(e) Joule's law.

Ans: d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

(a) Centigrade

(b) Celsius

(d) Kelvin

(e) Rankine.

Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram

(b) gram

(d) quintal

(e) newton.

Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is

(a) second

(b) minute

(d) day

(e) year.

Ans: a

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is

(a) meter

(b) centimeter

(d) millimeter.

Ans: a

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

(a) watt

(b) joule

(d) joule/m

(e) joule m.

Ans: b

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as

(a) temperature

(b) absolute

(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant

(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.

Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

(a) more volume

(b) less volume

(d) unpredictable behaviour

(e) no such correlation.

Ans: a

10. General gas equation is

(a) PV=nRT

(b) PV=mRT

(d) PV = C

(e) Cp-Cv = Wj

Ans: b

11. According to Dalton's law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to

(a) greater of the partial pressures of all

(b) average of the partial pressures of all

(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight

(e) atmospheric pressure.

Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.

(a) 02, N2, steam, C02

(b) Oz, N2, water vapour

(d) 02, N2, H2, air

(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.

Ans: d

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

(a) kg/cm2

(b) mm of water column

(d) dynes per square cm

(e) bars

Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.

Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

(a) its heating value

(b) kinetic energy of molecules

(d) attraction of molecules

(e) surface tension of molecules.

Ans: b

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when

(a) volume of the gas is zero

(b) pressure of the gas is zero

(d) specific heat of gas is zero

(e) mass is zero.

Ans: c

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are

(a) perfectly elastic

(b) perfectly inelastic

(d) partly inelastic

(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.

Ans: a

18. The pressure'of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to

(a) E/3

(b) E/2

(d)2E/3

(e) 5E/4.

Ans: d

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to

(a) T

(b) j

(d) Vr

(e) 1/Vr.

Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves

(a) exactly as gas

(b) as steam

(d) approximately as a gas

(e) as average of gas and vapour.

Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

(a) at sea level

(b) at the center of the earth

(d) under vacuum conditions

(e) at a temperature of - 273 °K

Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) - 273 °K

(b) vacuum

(d) centre of earth

(e) in space.

Ans: c

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton

(b) pascal

(d) watt

(e) joule.

Ans: d

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at

(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C

(b) a temperature of 0°C

(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature

(e) can't be attained.

Ans: a

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume

(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

(e) remains constant.

Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to

(a) 0.17

(b) 0.21

(d) 1.0

(e) 1.41

Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to

(a) C/Cv

(b) Cv/Cp

(d) Cp + Cv

(e) Cp x Cv

Ans: c

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by

(a) 1 law

(b) 2 laws

(d) 4 laws

Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

(a) 0.17

(b) 0.24

(d) 1.41

(e) 2.71.

Ans: d

30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

(a) all ranges of pressures

(b) only small range of pressures

(d) steady change of pressures

(e) atmospheric conditions.

Ans: b

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature

(a) Charles' law

(b) Joule's law

(d) Boyle's law

(e) there is no such law.

Ans: b

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

(a) densities

(b) specific weights

(d) gas characteristic constants

(e) specific gravities.

Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures

(a) Charles' Law

(b) Joule's Law

(d) Boyle's Law

(e) there is no such law.

Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Ans: c

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant

(a) Joule's law

(b) Boyle's law

(d) Gay-Lussac law

(e) Charles' law.

Ans: e

36. Gases have

(a) only one value of specific heat

(b) two values of specific heat

(d) no value of specific heat

(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.

Ans: b

37. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis

(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature

(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two

(d) gases have two values of specific heat

(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.

Ans: a

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume

(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

(e) is always constant.

Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

(a) + ve

(b) -ve

(d) maximum

(e) minimum.

Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as

(a) Avogadro's hypothesis

(b) Dalton's law

(d) Law of thermodynamics

(e) Joule's law.

Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases is

(a) divided by its molecular weight

(b) multiplied by its molecular weight

(d) multiplied by its specific weight

(e) divided by its specific weight.

Ans: b

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to

(a) + v

(b) - ve

(d) pressure x volume

(e) any where between zero and infinity.

Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Ans: b

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are

(a) path functions

(b) point functions

(d) real functions

(e) thermodynamic functions.

Ans: b

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

(a) pressure

(b) temperature

(d) heat

(e) density.

Ans: d

46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas

(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight

(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight

(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight

(e) occupies same volume.

Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a

(a) closed system

(b) open system

(d) heterogeneous system

(e) thermodynamic system.

Ans: d

48. Which of the following is the property of a system

(a) pressure and temperature

(b) internal energy

(d) enthalpy and entropy

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

(a) 21

(b) 23

(d) 73

(e) 79.

Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property

(a) pressure

(b) temperature

(d) heat

(e) specific volume.

Ans: d

51. Which of the following items is not a path function

(a) heat

(b) work

(d) vdp

(e) thermal conductivity.

Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on

(a) the end states only

(b) particular adiabatic process

(d) the value of heattransferred

(e) mass of the system.

Ans: a

53. Heat and work are

(a) point functions

(b) system properties

(d) intensive properties

(e) extensive properties.

Ans: c

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and pressure

(a) enthalpy

(b) volume

(d) entropy

(e) specific volume.

Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be

(a) reversible process

(b) isothermal process

(d) irreversible process

(e) free expansion process.

Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have

(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat

(d) no value of specific heat

(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.

Ans: a

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is

(a) 54°C

(b) 327°C

(d) 654°C

(e) 600°C

Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion

(a) pV"=C

(b) isothermal

(d) free expansion

(e) throttling.

Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV" = C, then the process is known as constant

(a) volume

(b) pressure

(d) enthalpy

(e) entropy.

Ans: a

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when

(a) flow is uniform and steady

(b) process is isentropic

(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature

(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.

Ans: d

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

(a) constant pressure

(b) constant temperature

(d) constant entropy

(e) N.T.P. condition.

Ans: a

62. The term N.T.P. stands for

(a) nominal temperature and pressure

(b) natural temperature and pressure

(d) normal thermodynamic practice

(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.

Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as

(a) heat exchange process

(b) throttling process

(d) adiabatic process

(e) hyperbolic process.

Ans: e

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas

(e) shows unpredictable behaviour.

Ans: c

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy

(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process

(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other

(d) deals with heat engines

(e) does not exist.

Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be

(a) 80°C

(b) 0°C

(d) 20°C

(e) 60°C.

Ans: b

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics

(b) first law of thermodynamics

(d) third law of thermodynamics

(e) Avogadro's hypothesis.

Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to

(a) 1 Nm/s

(b) 1 N/mt

(d) 1 kNm/hr

(e) 1 kNm/mt.

Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following process

(a) constant volume

(b) free expansion

(d) all Of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error

(a) dry steam

(b) wet steam

(d) superheated steam

(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.

Ans: d

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work done will be about

(a) 100 xlOO5 joules

(b) lxlO5 joules

(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules

(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.

Ans: c

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is

(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K

(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K

(d) 427kgfm/mol°K

(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.

Ans: c

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

(a) 21

(b) 23

(d) 77

(e) 79.

Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and

(a) specific heat at constant pressure

(b) specific heat at constant volume

(d) gas constant

(e) unity.

Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is

(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K

(b) 83.14J/kmol°K

(d) All J/kmol °K

(e) 735 J/kmol °K.

Ans: b

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only

(a) any gas

(b) saturated steam

(d) perfect gas

(e) superheated steam.

Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process

(a) work done is zero

(b) heat transfer is zero

(d) work done is zero but heat increases

(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.

Ans: c

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as

(a) free expansion

(b) hyperbolic expansion

(d) parabolic expansion

(e) throttling.

Ans: e

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

(a) temperature

(b) pressure

(d) variation of its constituents

(e) air flow

Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called

(a) free expansion

(b) hyperbolic expansion

(d) parabolic expansion

(e) throttling.

Ans: a

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible

(a) throttling

(b) free expansion

(d) hyperbolic and pV = C

(e) isothermal and adiabatic.

Ans: e

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process

(a) isothermal

(b) adiabatic

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied

(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered

(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working substance should be

(a) zero

(b) minimum

(d) maximum

(d) infinity

(e) there is no such criterion.

Ans: a

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to

(a) 0.75

(b) 1

(d) 1.35

(e) 2.

Ans: b

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be

(a) 4.17m3/kgmol

(b) 400 m3/kg mol

(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol

(e) 417m3/kgmol.

Ans: a

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be

(a) 300 Nm

(b) 300,000 Nm

(d) 3000 Nm

(e) 30,000 Nm.

Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

(a) increase higher temperature

(b) decrease higher temperature

(d) decrease lower temperature

(e) keep lower temperature constant.

Ans: d

89. Entropy change depends on

(a) heat transfer

(b) mass transfer

(d) thermodynamic state

(e) change of pressure and volume.

Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

(a) maximum

(b) minimum

(d) unpredictable

(e) negative.

Ans: c

91. Isochoric process is one in which

(a) free expansion takes place

(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system

(d) all parameters remain constant

(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.

Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system

(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant

(d) total energy of a system remains constant

(e) entropy of a system remains constant.

Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from

(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic

(b) first law of thermodynamics

(d) basic law of thermodynamics

(e) claussius statement.

Ans: b

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

(a) heat and work

(b) heat, work and properties of the system

(d) various thermodynamic processes

(e) heat and internal energy.

Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant

(a) pressure

(b) temperature

(d) internal energy

(e) entropy.

Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) first increases and then decreases

(e) first decreases and then increases.

Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant

(a) pressure

(b) temperature

(d) internal energy

(e) entropy.

Ans: c

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible

(b) Carnot engine is most efficient

(d) mass and light are mutually convertible

(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.

Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as

(a) internal energy

(b) entropy

(d) enthalpy

(e) thermal conductance.

Ans: d

100. First law of thermodynamics

(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system

(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change

(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in

(a) raising its temperature

(b) raising its pressure

(d) raising its temperature and doing external work

(e) doing external work.

Ans: d

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

(a) reversible engine

(b) irreversible engine

(d) petrol engine

(e) diesel engine.

Ans: a

103. Measurement of temperature is based on

(a) thermodynamic properties

(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics

(d) second law of thermodynamics

(e) joule's law.

Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

(a) properties of the medium/substance used

(b) condition of engine

(d) temperature range of operation

(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.

Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

(a) initial temperature is 0°K

(b) final temperature is 0°K

(d) final temperature is 0°C

(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.

Ans: b

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be

(a) 650°K

(b) 600°K

(d) 700°K

(e) 750°K.

Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance will change accordingly

(a) temperature

(b) enthalpy

(d) entropy

(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then

(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium

(b) process is executed in closed system cycle

(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero

(e) no work will be done by the system.

Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind

(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency

(b) a fully reversible engine

(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy

(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.

Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is

(a) feasible

(b) impossible

(d) possible, but with lot of sophistications

(e) desirable.

Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is

(a) justified

(b) not possible

(d) cost will be very high

(e) theroretically possible.

Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at

(a) constant pressure

(b) constant volume

(d) constant enthaply

(e) any one of the above.

Ans: c

114. A diathermic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction

(b) permits thermal interaction

(d) discourages thermal interaction

(e) does not exist.

Ans: b

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction

(b) permits thermal interaction

(d) discourages thermal interaction

(e) dos not exist.

Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.

(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.

(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.

(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.

Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

(a) becomes hotter

(b) becomes cooler1

(d) may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air

(e) attains atmospheric temperature.

Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it

(a) at atmospheric pressure

(b) at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure

(d) any pressure

(e) not possible.

Ans: c

119. During throttling process

(a) heat exchange does not take place

(b) no work is done by expanding steam

(d) all of the above

(e) entropy decreases.

Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as

(a) heat

(b) potential energy

(d) friction

(e) increase in pressure.

Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a

sign of approaching

(a) fine weather

(b) rains

(d) cold wave

(e) hot wave.

Ans: c

122. The unit'of universal gas constant is

(a) watts/°K

(b) dynes/°C

(d)erg/°K

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

123. Calorie is a measure of

(a) specific heat

(b) quantity of heat

(d)entropy

(e) work.

Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg

(b) zero mm Hg

(d) 1 mm Hg

(e) lOOmmHg.

Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg

(b) zero mm Hg

(d) 1 mm Hg

(e) 100mm Hg.

Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to

(a) 1 kgf/cnr2

(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2

(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2

(e) 100 kgf/cm2.

Ans: b

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of

(a) conservation of mass

(b) conservation of energy

(d) conservation of heat

(e) conservation of temperature.

Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is

(a) a thermodynamic machine

(b) a non-thermodynamic machine

(d) a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics

(e) an inefficient machine.

Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with

(a) conservation of heat

(b) conservation of work

(d) conversion fo work into heat

(e) conservation of mass.

Ans: c

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics

(a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source

(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.

(d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy

(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on

(a) Carnot cycle

(b) Joule cycle

(d) Rankine cycle

(d) Otto cycle

(e) Brayton cycle.

Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle

(a) carnot

(b) Stirling

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics

(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes

(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

(a) working substance

(b) design of engine

(d) type of fuel fired

(e) temperatures of source and sink.

Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added

(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle

(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

(a) gas engine

(b) well lubricated engine

(d) steam engine

(e) reversible engine.

Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is

(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle

(d) a quasi static cycle

(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.

Ans: a

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics

(b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes.

(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle

(a) more

(b) less

(d) depends on other factors

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

(a) reversible cycles

(b) irreversible cycles

(d) semi-reversible cycles

(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.

Ans: a

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is known as

(a) Otto cycle

(b) Ericsson cycle

(d) Stirling cycle

(e) Atkinson cycle.

Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

(a) Carnot cycle

(b) Rankine cycle

(d) Bell Coleman cycle

(e) Dual cycle.

Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists' of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics

(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes

(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle

(a) Carnot

(b) Ericsson

(d) Joule

(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as

(a) Dual combustion cycle

(b) Diesel cycle

(d) Rankine cycle

(e) Stirling cycle.

Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) first increases and then decreases

(e) first decreases and then increases.

Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency

(a) Rankine

(b) Stirling

(d) Brayton

(e) Joule.

Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will

(a) increase

(b) decrease

(d) increase/decrease depending on application

(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will

(a) increase

(b) decrease

(d) increase/decrease depending on ap-plication

(e) unpredictable. "

Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

(a) Brayton cycle

(b) Joule cycle

(d) Bell-Coleman cycle

(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.

Ans: e

151. Gas turbine cycle consists of

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics

(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes

(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that

(a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam

(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle

(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Transformers - Electrical Engineering MCQ Question and Answers

1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

(a) Current

(b) Voltage

(d) All of the above

Ans: c

2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary

(a) through cooling coil

(b) through air

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

3. A transformer core is laminated to

(a) reduce hysteresis loss

(b) reduce eddy current losses

(d) reduce all above losses

Ans: b

4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a transformer depends on

(a) tightness of clamping

(b) gauge of laminations

(d) all of the above

Ans: d

5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load current ?

(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent

(b) 2 to 5 per cent

(d) 20 to 30 per cent

Ans: b

6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have

(a) high resistance

(b) high reluctance

(d) low reluctance

Ans: d

7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine

(a) copper loss

(b) magnetising current

(d) efficiency of the transformer

Ans: c

8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be

(a) lkV

(b) 33 kV

(d) 330 kV

Ans: b

9. Sumpner's test is conducted on trans-formers to determine

(a) temperature

(b) stray losses

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around

(a) 1.7 Wb/m2

(b) 2.7 Wb/m2

(d) 4.7 Wb/m2

Ans: a

11. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when

(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses

(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses

(d) copper losses = iron losses

Ans: d

12. No-load current in a transformer

(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75°

(b) leads the voltage by about 75°

(d) leads the voltage by about 15°

Ans: a

13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to

(a) provide support to windings

(b) reduce hysteresis loss

(d) reduce eddy current losses

Ans: c

14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?

(a) Conservator

(b) Breather

(d) Exciter

Ans: d

15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short circuited

(a) High voltage side

(b) Low voltage side

(d) Secondary side

Ans: b

16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area

(a) Low voltage winding

(b) High voltage winding

(d) Secondary winding

Ans: a

17. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage

(b) current

(d) frequency

Ans: c

18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because

(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage

(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

19. Primary winding of a transformer

(a) is always a low voltage winding

(b) is always a high voltage winding

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?

(a) Low voltage winding

(b) High voltage winding

(d) Secondary winding

Ans: b

21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of

(a) 100 per cent

(b) 98 per cent

(d) 25 per cent

Ans: b

22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant irrespective of load changes are

(a) friction and windage losses

(b) copper losses

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is

(a) natural air cooling

(b) air blast cooling

(d) any of the above

Ans: c

24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of about

(a) 180°

(b) 120"

(d) 75°

Ans: d

25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon

(a) supply frequency

(b) load current

(d) both (b) and (c)

Ans: d

26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to

(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer

(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to a rating of

(a) 3000 kVA

(b) 1000 kVA

(d) 250 kVA

Ans: a

28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at

(a) nearly full load

(b) 70% full load

(d) no load

Ans: a

29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is

(a) at no load

(b) at 50% full load

(d) at full load

Ans: b

30. Transformer breaths in when

(a) load on it increases

(b) load on it decreases

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

31. No-load current of a transformer has

(a) has high magnitude and low power factor

(b) has high magnitude and high power factor

(d) has small magnitude and low power factor

Ans: d

32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils

(a) to provide free passage to the cooling oil

(b) to insulate the coils from each other

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

33. Greater the secondary leakage flux

(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.

(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is

(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary

(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux

(d) to provide all above features

Ans: c

35. The power transformer is a constant

(a) voltage device

(b) current device

(d) main flux device

Ans: d

36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their

(a) leakage reactance

(b) per unit impedance

(d) ratings

Ans: b

37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be

(a) R2/VK

(b) R2IK2

(d) R22/K

Ans: b

38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with regard to polarity ?

(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of common load

(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different, then

(a) transformers will be overheated

(b) power factors of both the transformers will be same

(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load

Ans: d

40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

(a) primary side

(b) secondary side

(d) high voltage side

Ans: c

41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

(a) reduces weight per kVA

(6) reduces iron losses

(d) increases part load efficiency

Ans: a

42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of

(a) ionizing air

(b) absorbing moisture

(d) cooling the transformer oil.

Ans: b

43. The chemical used in breather is

(a) asbestos fiber

(b) silica sand

(d) silica gel

Ans: d

44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The statement is

(a) true

(b) false

Ans: b

45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of

(a) volts

(b) amperes

(d) kVA

Ans: d

46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as

(a) magnetostrication

(b) boo

(d) zoom

Ans: c

47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum flux density)

(a) Bmax

(b) Bmax1-6

(d) B max

Ans: b

48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually

(a) wood

(b) copper

(d) silicon steel

Ans: d

49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually

(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm

(b) 4 mm to 5 mm

(d) 25 mm to 40 mm

Ans: a

50. The function of conservator in a transformer is

(a) to project against'internal fault

(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses

(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of temperature of sur-roundings

Ans: d

51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is

(a) 33 kV.

(6) 66 kV

(d) 400 kV

Ans: d

52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is

(a) zero

(b) 1 ohm

(d) infinite

Ans: d

53. A transformer oil must be free from

(a) sludge

(b) odour

(d) moisture

Ans: d

54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on

(a) auto-transformers

(b) air-cooled transformers

(d) oil cooled transformers

Ans: d

55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil temperature exceeds

(a) 50°C

(b) 80°C

(d) 150°C

Ans: d

56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be

(a) fluctuating load

(b) poor insulation

(d) saturation of core

Ans: d

57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around

(a) 90% load

(b) zero load

(d) 50% load

Ans: d

58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for transformer core ?

(a) Mechanical strength

(6) Low hysteresis loss

(d) High permeability

Ans: c

59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when

(a) load is unbalanced only

(b) load is balanced only

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when

(a) load is balanced only

(b) load is unbalanced only

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

61. Buchholz's relay gives warning and protection against

(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself

(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because it has

(a) small air gap

(b) large leakage flux

(d) fewer rotating parts

Ans: a

63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer ?

(a) Frequency

(b) Voltage

(d) Any of the above

Ans: a

64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for transformer core ?

(a) Low hysteresis loss

(b) High permeability

(d) Adequate mechanical strength

Ans: c

65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon

(a) load current

(b) load current and voltage

(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor

Ans: a

66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have

(a) high reluctance

(b) low reactance

(d) low resistance

Ans: b

67. Noise level test in a transformer is a

(a) special test

(b) routine test

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

68. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ?

(a) Core insulation voltage test

(b) Impedance test

(d) Polarity test

Ans: c

69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at

(a) leading power factor

(b) lagging power factor

(d) zero power factor

Ans: a

70. Helical coils can be used on

(a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers

(b) high frequency transformers

(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers

Ans: a

71. Harmonics in transformer result in

(a) increased core losses

(b) increased I2R losses

(d) all of the above

Ans: d

72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually

(a) copper core

(b) cost iron core

(d) mild steel core

Ans: c

73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be

(a) 6400 W

(b) 1600 W

(d) 400 W

Ans: d

1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is

(a) average value

(b) r.m.s. value

(d) instantaneous value

Ans: c

L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces

(a) hysteresis loss

(b) eddy current losses

(d) all of the above

Ans: a

76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?

(a) Primary winding

(b) Secondary winding

(d) High voltage winding

Ans: d

77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around

(a) no-load

(b) half-load

(d) 10% overload

Ans: c

.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding transformer ?

(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced

(b) Saving in winding material

(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated

Ans: b

79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because

(a) the current on secondary side is negligible

(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary

(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer

Ans: c

80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal percentage impedance. This is likely to result in

(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries

(b) power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging

(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings

Ans: d

81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric temperature during day and

night is taken care of by which part of transformer

(a) Conservator

(b) Breather

(d) Buchholz relay

Ans: a

82. An ideal transformer is one which has

(a) no losses and magnetic leakage

(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings

(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal

(e) none of the above

Ans: a

83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its

(a) flux density remains unaffected

(b) iron losses are reduced

(d) core flux density is increased

Ans: d

84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to fullload because

(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant

(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant

(d) primary voltage remains constant

Ans: c

85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that

(a) copper loss = iron loss

(b) copper loss < iron loss

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,"the iron loss will

(a) not change

(b) decrease

(d) any of the above

Ans: c

87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is

(a) capacitive only

(b) inductive only

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by

(a) low power factor wattmeter

(b) unity power factor wattmeter

(d) any type of wattmeter

Ans: a

89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be

(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density

(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current

(d) none of above will happen

Ans: a

90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by

(a) mica strip

(6) thin coat of varnish

(d) any of the above

Ans: b

91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type

(b) Sandwich type

(d) Rectangular type

Ans: b

92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage

(b) primary is supplied full-load current

(d) primary is supplied rated kVA

Ans: a

93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(a) hysteresis losses

(b) copper losses

(d) eddy current losses

Ans: c

94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(a) hysteresis losses

(b) copper losses

(d) eddy current losses

Ans: b

95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should have

(a) same efficiency

(b) same polarity

(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.

Ans: b

96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.

(a) low,low

(b) high,high

(d) high,low

Ans: a

97. The function of breather in a transformer is

(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank

(b) to cool the coils during reduced load

(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer

Ans: d

98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?

(a) Step-up transformer

(b) Step-down transformer

(d) Current transformer

Ans: d

99. The size of a transformer core will depend on

(a) frequency

(b) area of the core

(d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: d

100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up to

(a) 1.5 MVA

(b) 5 MVA

(d) 50 MVA

Ans: a

101. A shell-type transformer has

(a) high eddy current losses

(b) reduced magnetic leakage

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero

(a) on full-load

(b) on overload

(d) on zero power factor

Ans: c

103. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage

(b) current

(d) power

Ans: d

104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?

(a) llkV

(b) 33kV

(d) 122 kV

Ans: d

105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer employing

(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel

(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily insulated

(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting capacitance of the end turns

(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage

(a) eddy current loss will decrease

(b) eddy current loss will increase

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers are

(a) friction and windage losses

(b) magnetic losses

(d) copper losses

Ans: a

109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant irrespective of load changes are

(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses

(b) friction and windage losses

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and

drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?

(a) Its secondary current is 5 A

(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V

(d) Its secondary current is 20 A

(e) It is a step-up transformer

Ans: d

111. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under operating conditions because it

(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction

(b) is safe to human beings

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be

(a) zero

(b) 10 Q

(d) infinity

Ans: d

113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means

(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least

(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least

(d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum

Ans: a

114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at

(a) 0.8 leading power factor

(b) 0.8 lagging power factor

(d) unity power factor

Ans: d

115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformers ?

(a) Overfluxing protection

(b) Buchholz relay

(d) All of the above

Ans: b

116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and switching ?

(a) Horn gaps

(b) Thermal overload relays

(d) Conservator

Ans: a

117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by

(a) short-circuit test

(b) back-to-back test

(d) any of the above

Ans: b

118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature safely ?

(a) Cellulose

(b) Asbestos

(d) Glass fibre

Ans: c

119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside ?

(a) Bushings

(b) Core

(d) Secondary winding

Ans: a

120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as

(a) zoom

(b) hum

(d) buzz

Ans: b

121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?

(a) Core loss

(b) Friction loss

(d) Hysteresis loss

Ans: b

122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?

(a) poor insulation

(b) Overload

(d) Core saturation

Ans: d

123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in

(a) core

(b) windings

(d) any of the above

Ans: b

124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to

(a) load changes

(b) oil in the transformer

(d) mechanical vibrations

Ans: c

125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its

(a) temperature rise

(b) dielectric strength of oil

(d) copper loss

Ans: c

126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because

(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output

(b) iron loss is increased considerably

(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input

Ans: a

127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure

(a) insulation resistance

(b) copper loss

(d) total loss

(e) efficiency

(f) none of the above

Ans: c

128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine

(a) core loss

(b) copper loss

(d) magnetising current

(e) magnetising current and loss

Ans: e

129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the ratio of

(a) primary turns to secondary turns

(b) secondary current to primary current

(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage

Ans: c

130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is

(a) iron core

(b) copper winding

(d) frame or case

(e) transformer tank

Ans: c

131. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated voltage

(a) its power factor will deteriorate

(b) its power factor will increase

(d) its power factor will be zero

Ans: a

132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its transformation ratio is

(a) approximately equal to one

(b) less than one

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is

(a) unity

(b) lagging

(d) zero

Ans: c

134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results in change of supply current of

(a) less than 15 A

(b) more than 15 A

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same power are

(a) about the same

(6) much smaller

(d) somewhat smaller

(e) none of the above

Ans: c

Industrial Engineering - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions MCQ

1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under varying conditions of output and costs, is known as

(a) Gnatt chart

(b) flow chart

(d) PERT chart

(e) Taylor chart.

Ans: c

2. Break-even analysis consists of

(a) fixed cost

(b) variable cost

(d) operation costs

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

3. Break-even analysis shows profit when

(a) sales revenue > total cost

(b) sales revenue = total cost

(d) variable cost < fixed cost

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of

(a) fixed cost

(b) variable cost

(d) fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads

(e) fixed cost + sales revenue.

Ans: a

5. The break-even point represents

(a) the most economical level of operation of any industry

(b) the time when unit can run without i loss and profit

(d) the time when company can make maximum profits

(e) time for overhauling a plant.

Ans: c

9. In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such as1

(a) sales turn over

(b) lowest competitive price

(d) buyers' capability to pay

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

10. Work study is concerned with

(a) improving present method and finding standard time

(b) motivation of workers

(d) improving production planning and control

(e) all of the above.

Ans: a

11. Basic tool in work study is

(a) graph paper

(b) process chart

(d) stop watch

(e) analytical mind.

Ans: d

12. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study

(a) operation

(b) inspection

(d) delay temporary storage

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

15. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study

(a) inspection

(b) transport

(d) permanent storage

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

16. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its

(a) minimum value

(b) maximum value

(d) middle value

(e) alarming value.

Ans: a

17. Material handling in automobile industry is done by

(a) overhead crane

(b) trolley

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

18. String diagram is used when

(a) team of workers is working at a place

(b) material handling is to be done

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

20. Work study is most useful

(a) where production activities are involved

(b) in judging the rating of machines

(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it

(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.

Ans: a

21. Micromotion study is

(a) enlarged view of motion study

(b) analysis of one stage of motion study

(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis

(e) motion study of small components upto mircoseconds.

Ans: d

22. In micromotion study, therblig is described by

(a) a symbol

(b) an event

(d) micro motions

(e) standard symbol and colour.

Ans: e

23. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus

(a) policy allowance

(b) interference allowance

(d) learning allowance

(e) unforeseen allowance.

Ans: a

24. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions

(a) 8

(b) 12

(d) 20

(e) 24.

Ans: c

25. The standard time for a job is

(a) total work content

(b) basic time + relaxation time

(d) total work content + delay contigency allowance

(e) total work content + relaxation time.

Ans: d

27. Work study is done with the help of

(a) process chart

(b) material handling

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

28. Scheduling gives information about

(a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period

(b) when work should complete

(d) prcper utilisation of machines

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

29. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on

(a) operator's activity

(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble

(d) making efficient despatching

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

30. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

(a) determine overhead expenses

(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages

(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines

(e) compare alternative methods.

Ans: a

31. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the

(a) relative worth of jobs

(b) skills required by a worker

(d) contribution of a job

(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.

Ans: a

32. Micromotion study is

(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view

(b) motion study observed on enhanced time intervals

(d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously

(e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.

Ans: a

33. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by

(a) work sampling

(b) time study

(d) work study

(e) ABC analysis.

Ans: a

34. TMU in method time measurement stands for

(a) time motion unit

(b) time measurement unit

(d) technique measurement unit

(e) time method unit.

Ans: b

35. Time study is

(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort

(b) machine setting time

(d) method of fixing time for workers

(e) method of determining the personnel Requirement.

Ans: a

36. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of

(a) detailed calculations

(b) convenience

(d) past experience

(e) fixed percentage of daily production.

Ans: c

38. One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals

(a) 0.0001 minute

(b) 0.0006 minute

(d) 0.001 minute

(e) 0.06 minute.

Ans: b

39. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of

(a) second

(b) minute

(d) day

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

40. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for

(a) improving a work method

(b) improvising a work method

(d) providing a schematic framework

(e) reducing inventory costs.

Ans: e

41. Gnatt chart provides information about the

(a) material handling

(b) proper utilisation of manpower

(d) efficient working of machine

(e) all of the above.

Ans: c

42. ABC analysis deals with

(a) analysis of process chart

(b) flow of material

(d) controlling inventory costs money

(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

43. Process layout is employed for

(a) batch production

(b) continuous type of product

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

44. For a product layout the material handling equipment must

(a) have full flexibility

(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.

(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application

(e) arranging shops according to specialisation of duties.

Ans: d

45. Travel charts provide

(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages

(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections

(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station

(e) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum results.

Ans: b

46. Product layout is employed for

(a) batch production

(b) continuous production1

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

48. The process layout is best suited where

(a) specialisation exists

(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation

(d) mass production is envisaged

(e) bought out items are more.

Ans: c

49. A low unit cost can be obtained by following

(a) product layout

(b) functional layout

(d) specialization of operation

(e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout.

Ans: a

50. Military organisation is known as

(a) line organisation

(b) line and staff organisation

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

51. The main disadvantage of line organisation is

(a) top level executives have to do excessive work

(b) structure is rigid

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

52. The main advantage of line organisation is its

(a) effective command and control

(b) defined responsibilities at all levels

(d) ability of quick decision at all levels

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

53. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as

(a) line organisation

(b) line and staff organisation

(d) effective organisation

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

54. The salient feature of functional organisation is

(a) strict adherence to specification

(b) separation of planning and design part

(d) work is properly planned and distributed

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

55. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is

(a) line organisation

(b) line and staff organisation

(d) effective organisation

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

56. Templates are used for

(a) a planning layout

(b) flow of material

(d) copying complicated profiles

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

57. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is

(a) conveyors

(b) cranes and hoists

(d) locos

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

58. Routing prescribes the

(a) flow of material in the plant

(b) proper utilization of man power

(d) inspection of final product

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

59. Queuing theory deals with problems of

(a) material handling

(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme

(d) effective use of machines

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

60. Standard time is defined as

(a) normal time + allowances

(b) normal time + idle time + allowances

(d) only normal time for an operation

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

61. Father of industrial engineering is

(a) Jeck Gilberth

(b) Gnatt

(d) Newton

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

62. The grouping of activities into organisational units is called

(a) corporate plans

(b) higher level management

(d) departmentatidn

(e) company policy.

Ans: d

63. Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile industry

(a) functional organisation

(b) line organisation

(d) line and staff organisations

(e) scalar organisation.

Ans: d

64. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants

(a) functional organisation

(b) line organisation

(d) line, staff and functional organisations

(e) scalar organisation.

Ans: a

65. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store

(a) inflated system

(b) primary cost method

(d) fixed price method

(e) variable price method.

Ans: a

66. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast

(a) productivity

(b) inventory control

(d) production control

(e) capital budgeting.

Ans: a

67. Gnatt charts are used for

(a) forecasting sales

(b) production schedule

(d) linear programming

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

68. Inventory management consists of

(a) effective running of stores

(b) state of merchandise methods of strong and maintenance etc.

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

69. Gnatt charts provide information about

(a) break even point analysis

(b) production schedule

(d) determining selling price

(e) value analysis.

Ans: b

70. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at

(a) achieving optimisation

(b) ensuring against market fluctuations

(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase

(e) regulate supply and demand.

Ans: c

71. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the

(a) optimum lot size

(b) highest level of inventory

(d) capability of a plant to produce

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

72. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of

(a) quality

(b) statistics

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

73. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

(a) management

(b) labour court

(d) board of directors

(e) president.

Ans: c

74. Under the Apprenticeship Act

(a) all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices

(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement

(d) only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices

(e) all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.

Ans: d

75. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to

(a) all industries

(b) all process industries and thermal power plants

(d) only key industries

(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.

Ans: e

76. Acceptance sampling is widely used in

(a) batch production

(b) job production

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

77. The technique of value analysis can be applied to

(a) complicated items only

(b) simple items only

(d) cost consciousness items only

(e) any item.

Ans: e

78. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to

(a) total cost of the product

(b) selling price of the product

(d) manufactured cost of the product

(e) depreciation value.

Ans: c

79. Value engineering aims at finding out the

(a) depreciation value of a product

(b) resale value of a product

(d) break even point when machine re-quires change

(e) selling price of an item.

Ans: c

80. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its

(a) minimum value

(b) maximum value

(d) alarming value

(e) original value.

Ans: a

81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when

(a) CAM < DAM

(b) CAM > DAM

(d) there is no such criterion

(e) none of the above.

(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)

Ans: a

82. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of

(a) a job

(b) an individual employee

(d) machine

(e) overall quality.

Ans: b

83. Material handling and plant location is analysed by

(a) Gnatt chart

(b) bin chart

(d) travel chart

(e) activity chart.

Ans: d

84. Works cost implies

(a) primary cost

(b) factory cost

(d) primary cost + factory expenses

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

85. Motion study involves analysis of

(a) actions of operator

(b) layout of work place

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

86. Standard time as compared to normal time is

(a) greater

(b) smaller

(d) there is no such correlation

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

87. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling

(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays

(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer

(d) no time measuring devices are generally needed

(e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.

Ans: a

88. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced

(a) process layout

(b) product layout

(d) plant layout

(e) functional layout.

Ans: b

89. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production

(a) process layout

(b) product layout

(d) plant layout

(e) functional layout.

Ans: b

90. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production

(a) process layout

(b) product layout

(d) plant layout

(e) functional layout.

Ans: a

91. The employees provident fund act is applicable to

(a) all industries

(b) all industries other than small and medium industries

(d) the industries notified by Government

(e) all major industries.

Ans: d

92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is

(a) credited into reserves of company

(b) deposited in nationalised bank

(d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India

(e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

Ans: e

93. The deductions for, employees provident fund start

(a) immediately on joining the service

(b) after 60 days of joining the service

(d) after 240 days of joining the service

(e) after one year of joining the service.

Ans: d

94. Father of time study was

(a) F.W. Taylor

(b) H.L. Gantt

(d) R.M. Barnes

(e) H.B. Maynord.

Ans: a

95. Tick the odd man out

(a) Taylor

(b) Drucker

(d) Galileo

(e) Parkinson.

Ans: d

96. Current assets include

(a) manufacturing plant

(b) manufacturing plant and equipment

(d) common stock held by the firm

(e) all of the above.

Ans: a

97. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by

(a) fast worker

(b) average worker

(d) new entrant

(e) any one of the above.

Ans: b

98. Job enrichment technique is applied to

(a) reduce labour monotony

(b) overcome boring and demotivating work

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

99. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited

(a) process layout

(b) product layout

(d) plant layout

(e) functional layout.

Ans: c

100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established

(a) by time study

(b) from previous production records

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

101. Routing is essential in the following type of industry

(a) assembly industry

(b) process industry

(d) mass production industry

(e) steel industry.

Ans: a

102. An optimum project schedule implies

(a) optimum utilisation of men, machines and materials

(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project

(d) to produce best results under given constraints

(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.

Ans: b

103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with

(a) break-even analysis

(b) value analysis

(d) queing theory

(e) tnaterial handling.

Ans: c

104. In crash program for a project

(a) both direct and indirect costs, increase

(b) indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease

(d) cost is no criterion

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

106. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Scanlon Plan

(b) Rowan Plan

(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System

(e) Halsey Premium Plan.

Ans: a

107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more

(a) past good workers

(b) past poor workers

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is

(a) paid as per efficiency

(b) ensured of minimum wages

(d) never a loser

(e) induced to do more work.

Ans: b

109. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as

(a) purchase value

(b) saleable value

(d) present worth

(e) function/cost.

Ans: e

110. Break-even analysis can be used for

(a) short run analysis

(b) long run analysis

(d) there is no such criterion

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

111. CPM has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate

(b) two time estimate

(d) four time estimate

(e) nil time estimate.

Ans: a

112. PERT has following time estimate

(a) one time estimate

(b) two time estimate

(d) four time estimate

(e) nil time estimate.

Ans: c

113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :

(a) a standard rating system

(b) a merit rating system

(d) his individual performance

(e) all of the above.

Ans: b

114. Which of the following incentive plansrensures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer

(a) Emerson efficiency plan

(b) Taylor plan

(d) Piece rate system

(e) Gilberth plan.

Ans: c

115. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan

(a) differential piece rate system

(b) Rowan plan

(d) Taylor plan

(e) Halsey plan.

Ans: d

117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers

(a) Halsey plan

(b) Rowan plan

(d) Emerson's plan

(e) Taylor's plan.

Ans: c

118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as

(a) Rowan Plan

(b) Bedaux Plan

(d) Halsey Premium plan

(e) Day work plan.

Ans: d

119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that

(a) a differential piece rate system should exist

(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed

(d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production

(e) all standards should be based on time studies.

Ans: e

120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches

(a) 50%

(b) 661%

(d) 80%

(e) 90%.

Ans: b

121. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be

(a) HA

(b) HA + (S~A) HA

(d) HA + ^^-H

(e) HA + ^^-HA.

Ans: b

122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be

(a) 2 HA

(b) 1.33 HA

(d) 1.15 HA

(e) 2.5 HA.

Ans: a

123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to

(a) those items which consume money

(b) those items which are not readily available

(d) those items which consume more money

(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.

Ans: d

124. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?

(a) Halsey Premium Plan

(b) Bedaux Plan

(d) Rowan Plan

(e) Taylor Plan.

Ans: c

125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as

(a) operation research

(b) linear programming

(d) queuing theory

(e) break-even analysis.

Ans: b

126. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results

(a) relations between factors must be linear (positive)

(b) relations between factors must be linear (negative)

(d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like

(a) iron and steel

(b) food processing

(d) banking

(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

128. The simplex method is the basic method for

(a) value analysis

(b) operation research

(d) model analysis

(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

129. The two-bin system is concerned with

(a) ordering procedure

(b) forecasting sales

(d) despatching and expediting

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as

(a) Dry work Plan

(b) Halsey Premium Plan

(d) Bedaux Plan

(e) Rowan Plan.

Ans: e

131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:

(a) annual cost method

(b) rate of return method

(d) present worth method

(e) any one of the above.

Ans: e

132. String diagram is used

(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts

(b) when a group of workers are working at a place

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant

(a) sinking fund method

(b) straight line method

(d) annuity charging method

(e) diminishing balance method.

Ans: d

134. Bin card is used in

(a) administrative wing

(b) workshop

(d) stores

(e) assembly shop.

Ans: d

135. Slack represents the difference between the

(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time

(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time

(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time

(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.

Ans: b

136. PERT and CPM are

(a) techniques to determine project status

(b) decision making techniques

(d) aids to determine cost implications of project

(e) aids to the decision maker.

Ans: e

137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case

(a) activities and events are clearly shown

(b) early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are clearly marked

(d) critical path can be easily determined

(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.

Ans: e

138. CPM is the

(a) time oriented technique

(b) event oriented technique

(d) target oriented technique

(e) work oriented technique.

Ans: c

139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include

(a) MTM (method time measurement)

(b) WFS (work factor systems)

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the abbvev

Ans: d

140. Work study comprises following main techniques

(a) method study and work measurement

(b) method study and time study

(d) method study and job evaluation

(e) value analysis and work measurement.

Ans: a

141. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others

(a) organisation performance x motivation = profits

(b) knowledge x skill = ability

(d) attitude x situation = motivation

(e) performance x resources = organisation performance.

Ans: a

142. PERT is the

(a) time oriented technique

(b) event oriented technique

(d) target oriented technique

(e) work oriented technique.

Ans: b

143. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that

(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities

(b) critical path is determined in PERT only

(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM

(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.

Ans: d

145. Queing theory is used for

(a) inventory problems

(b) traffic congestion studies

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed mathematically if

(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known

(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model

(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source are known

(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

147. Queing theory is associated with

(a) sales

(b) inspection time

(d) production time

(e) inventory.

Ans: c

148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that

(a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate

(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems

(a) that can't be analysed mathematically

(b) involving multistage queuing

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

151. A milestone chart

(a) shows the interdependence of various jobs

(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

152. Bar charts are suitable for

(a) minor works

(b) major works

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

153. The first method invented for planning projects was

(a) bar chart method

(b) milestone chart

(d) programme evaluation and review technique (PERT)

(e) none of the above.

154. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) programme evaluation and review technique is event oriented

(b) programme evaluation and review technique is not event oriented

(d) critical.path method is not activity oriented

(e) none of the above.

155. Pick up the correct statement from the

following

(a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method

(b) critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems

(d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957

(e) all of the above.

156. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.

(a) a project is divided into various activities

(b) required time for each activity is established

(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events

(e) all of the above.

157. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity meeting at the final episode

(a) early finish

(b) early start

(d) late finish

(e) none of the above.

158. The disadvantage of product layout is

(a) high initial investment for the specialized facilities

(b) skilled labour to operate machines

(d) high cost of inspection

(e) costly and complex production control.

159. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in

(a) job production

(b) automatic production

(d) intermittent production

(e) none of the above.

160. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance

(a) the flow of material in the plant

(b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower

(d) the layout of factory facilities

(e) normal route of workers through the plant.

161. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as

(a) dummy

(b) event

(e) none of the above.

162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

(a) an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work

(b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity

(d) the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right

(e) each activity consumes a given time

163. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known as

(a) event

(b) free float

(d) constraint

(e) dummy.

164. A dummy activity

(a) is artificially introduced

(b) is represented by a dotted line

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

165. If E> is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following relation holds good

(a) EF=ES+D

(b)LS=LF-D

(d) D = EF-ES

(e) all of the above.

166. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is known as

(a) event

(b) float

(d) constraint

(e) none of the above.

167. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution

(a) normal

(b) binomial

(d) exponential

(e) Gaussian.

168. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution

(a) normal

(b) binominal

(d) exponential

(e) Gaussian.

169. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to

(a) latest start time - earliest start time

(b) latest finish time - earliest finish time (EFT)

{d) all the above

(e) none of the above.

170. The critical activity has

(a) maximum float

(p) minimum float

(d) average float

(e) none of these.

171. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the

start of succeeding activities, is Known as

(a) duration

(b) total float

(d) interfering float

(e) none of the above.

172. The critical path of a network represents

(a) the minimum time required for completion of project

(b) the maximum time required for completion of project

(d) minimum cost required for completion of project

(e) none of the above.

173. Pick up the correct statement from the following

(a) the float may be positive, zero or negative

(b) if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of project in not delayed

(d) if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the whole project

(e) all of the above.

174. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of

(a) positive value

(b) negative value

(d) same value

(e) none of the above.

175. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer

(a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities

(b) to divert the resources from noncritical advanced activities to critical activities

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

177. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as

(a) normal time

(b) slow time

(d) standard time

(e) none of the above.

178. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs

of any project is known as

(a) event flow scheduling technique

(b) critical ratio scheduling

(d) short interval scheduling

(e) none of the above.

179. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling

(a) establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis

(b) determines the status of each activity

(d) is a dynamic system

(e) none of the above.

181. PERT is

(a) an analytic tool in concept ' (b) limit up of event oriented diagrams

(d) based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events

(e) all of the above.

182. CPM is _____.

(a) synthesising in concepts

(b) is built of activities oriented program-mes

(d) is used for repetitive works

(e) all of the above.

183. A CPM family includes

(a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)

(b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)

(d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)

(e) all of the above.

184. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications

(a) once through project

(b) maintenance jobs

(d) all non-technical jobs

(e) all of the above.

185. PERT analysis is based on

(a) optimistic time

(b) pessimistic time

(d) all of the above

(e) none of the above.

186. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are

(a) consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer

(b) consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date

(d) effective monitoring/controlling can't be done

(e) all of the above.

187. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents

(a) an ordinary event

(b) a significant event representing some mile-stone

(d) dangling event

(e) dummy event.

188. [ ] on a PERT/CPM chart represents

(a) an ordinary event

(b) a significant event representing some mile-stone

(d) dangling event

(e) dummy event.

190. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it

(a) consumes time, but no resources

(b) consumes resources but no time

(d) is a dangling event

(e) consumes both resources and time.

191. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having

(a) maximum slack

(b) minimum slack

(d) no slack

(e) judgement and experience.

192. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart

(a) increases continuously

(b) decreases continuously

(d) may increase or decrease depending on various factors

(e) unpredictable.

193. The assumption in PERT is

(a) a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected

(b) cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken

(d) activities are fixed and can't be changed ,

(e) commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.

194. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by

(a) latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time

(b) latest start time of the event - earliest start time of the event

(d) anyone of the above

(e) none of the above.

195. The important file in making a PERT is

(a) an event can't be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed

(b) no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed

(d) every activity must be completed before end point is reached

(e) all of the above.

196. An event is indicated on the network by

(a) a straight line

(b) a number enclosed in a circle or a square

(d) a dotted line

(e) an arrow.

197. In a PERT chart

(a) all activities should be numbered

(b) only important activities should be numbered

(d) only selected activities are numbered

(e) no activity is numbered.

198. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is

(a) ahead of schedule

(b) beyond schedule

(d) on critical path

(e) none of the above.

199. Pessimistic time is

(a) the maximum time which an activity might require

(b) the average time required for a job

(d) the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished

(e) the earliest finish.

200. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having

(a) +ve slack

(b) - ve slack

(d) dummy activities

(e) critical activities.

201. The slack on various events at critical path will be

(a) same as at the end point

(b) decreasing proportional to that at the end point

(d) maximum compared to other events

(e) none of the above.

202. A critical path on a PERT chart

(a) starts from start point and ends at end point

(b) starts from start point and may end anywhere

(d) may start and end at any point

(e) none of the above.

203. Capital expenditure means

(a) expenses incurred in acquiring capital

(b) main expenditure

(d) expenditure on procurement of fixed assets

(e) expenditure on property.

205. A rupee received one year hence is not the equivalent of a rupee received today, because the use of money has a value. This is the principle under

(a) pay-back method

(b) average return on investment method

(d) discounted cash flow method

(e) cost accounting method.

206. The equal payment series sinking fund factor for a given number of years (n) is used to calculate

(a) equal payments to be made at the end of each year when compound amount after n years is given

(b) .compound amount after n years when payments to be made each year are given

(d) equal payments to be made at the end of each year when present, net worth is given

(e) present net worth when the com¬pound amount after n years is given.

207. All financial decisions on any project appraisal are based on the

(a) future value of money

(b) present value of money

(d) anyone of the above

(e) none of the above.

208. The capital and running costs of similar machines having unequal service life can be compared by

(a) present net worth method

(b) rate of return method

(d) capitalised cost method

(e) depreciation method.

212. In Project appraisal, the term 'externalities' refers to

(a) extraneous elements

(b) unknown factors

(d) indirect benefits and indirect costs

(e) items over which there is no control.

213. The criterion to decide between various alternatives in project appraisal is

(a) net present value criterion

(b) benefit/cost ratio criterion

(d) any one of the above

(e) none of the above.

214. The benefit/cost ratio criterion is used to decide between various alternatives in a project appraisal for comparing

(a) identical projects

(b) similar projects

(d) all projects

(e) none of the above.

215. Capitalized cost comparison method is used for comparing alternatives having

(a) high initial cost

(b) high maintenance cost

(d) high electricity consuming devices

(e) high running cost.

216. Internal rate of return is that discount rate which makes the value of net present value equal to

(a) zero

(b) 1

(e) some - ve value.

217. For a project to be feasible, internal rate of return should be greater than

(a) zero

(b) 1

(d) expenses

(e) losses likely to be incurred.

218. In project appraisal studies 'intangibles' are those items which can

(a) be quantified in terms of money

(b) be quantified but can't be converted into money terms

(d) not be considered and are usually ignored

(e) receive highest priority.

219. Simplex method is used for

(a) linear programming

(b) queuing theory

(d) value engineering

(e) all of the above.

220. Depreciation of machines is categorized under the head

(a) direct expenses

(b) indirect expenses

(d) administrative expenses

(e) indirect material costs.

221. Depreciation of machines, according to income tax regulations is calculated on the basis of following method

(a) straight line

(b) sinking fund

(d) rate of return

(e) declining balance.

222. In project appraisal analysis, shadow prices are

(a) used for lost items

(b) used to convert inputs into cost and output into benefits

(d) taken as the basis for determining value of all the assets

(e) none of the above,

223. Cash discounts are reduction in price of goods

(a) sold on credit

(b) which depends on assurance of payment

(d) obtainable on bad debt loans

(e) which have good bargaining capacity of seller.

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